1. Motivation is best understood as a state that:
A) reduces a drive.
B) aims at satisfying a biological need.
C) energizes an organism to act.
D) energizes and directs behavior.
2. One shortcoming of the instinct theory of motivation is that it:
A) places too much emphasis on environmental factors.
B) focuses on cognitive aspects of motivation.
C) applies only to animal behavior.
D) does not explain human behaviors; it simply names them.
3. Few human behaviors are rigidly patterned enough to qualify as:
A) needs.
B) drives.
C) instincts.
D) incentives.
4. Instinct theory and drive-reduction theory both emphasize factors in motivation.
A) environmental
B) cognitive
C) psychological
D) biological
5. Which of the following is not an example of homeostasis?
A) perspiring in order to restore normal body temperature
B) feeling hungry and eating to restore the level of blood glucose to normal
C) feeling hungry at the sight of an appetizing food
D) All of the above are examples of homeostasis.
6. Which of the following is a difference between a drive and a need?
A) Needs are learned; drives are inherited.
B) Needs are physiological states; drives are psychological states.
C) Drives are generally stronger than needs.
D) Needs are generally stronger than drives.
7. Homeostasis refers to:
A) the tendency to maintain a steady internal state.
B) the tendency to seek external incentives for behavior.
C) the setting of the body's “weight thermostat.”
D) a theory of the development of sexual orientation.
8. One problem with the idea of motivation as drive reduction is that:
A) because some motivated behaviors do not seem to be based on physiological needs, they cannot be explained in terms of drive reduction.
B) it fails to explain any human motivation.
C) it cannot account for homeostasis.
D) it does not explain the hunger drive.
9. Which of the following is inconsistent with the drive-reduction theory of motivation?
A) When body temperature drops below 98.6° Fahrenheit, blood vessels constrict to conserve warmth.
B) A person is driven to seek a drink when his or her cellular water level drops below its optimum point.
C) Monkeys will work puzzles even if not given a food reward.
D) A person becomes hungry when body weight falls below its biological set point.
10. Mary loves hang-gliding. It would be most difficult to explain Mary's behavior according to:
A) incentives.
B) achievement motivation.
C) drive-reduction theory.
D) Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
11. For two weeks, Orlando has been on a hunger strike in order to protest his country's involvement in what he perceives as an immoral war. Orlando's willingness to starve himself in order to make a political statement conflicts with the theory of motivation advanced by:
A) Kinsey.
B) Murray.
C) Keys.
D) Maslow.
12. Beginning with the most basic needs, which of the following represents the correct sequence of needs in the hierarchy described by Maslow?
A) safety; physiological; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment
B) safety; physiological; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment
C) physiological; safety; esteem; belongingness and love; self-fulfillment
D) physiological; safety; belongingness and love; esteem; self-fulfillment
13. According to Maslow's theory:
A) the most basic motives are based on physiological needs.
B) needs are satisfied in a specified order.
C) the highest motives relate to self-actualization.
D) all of the above are true.
14. In his study of men on a semistarvation diet, Keys found that:
A) the metabolic rate of the subjects increased.
B) the subjects eventually lost interest in food.
C) the subjects became obsessed with food.
D) the subjects' behavior directly contradicted predictions made by Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
15. Increases in insulin will:
A) lower blood sugar and trigger hunger.
B) raise blood sugar and trigger hunger.
C) lower blood sugar and trigger satiety.
D) raise blood sugar and trigger satiety.
16. The brain area that when stimulated suppresses eating is the:
A) lateral hypothalamus.
B) ventromedial hypothalamus.
C) lateral thalamus.
D) ventromedial thalamus.
17. Two rats have escaped from their cages in the neurophysiology lab. The technician needs your help in returning them to their proper cages. One rat is grossly overweight; the other is severely underweight. You confidently state that the overweight rat goes in the “-destruction” cage, while the underweight rat goes in the “-destruction” cage.
A) hippocampus; amygdala
B) amygdala; hippocampus
C) lateral hypothalamus; ventromedial hypothalamus
D) ventromedial hypothalamus; lateral hypothalamus
18. Electrical stimulation of the lateral hypothalamus will cause an animal to:
A) begin eating.
B) stop eating.
C) become obese.
D) begin copulating.
19. In animals, destruction of the lateral hypothalamus results in , whereas destruction of the ventromedial hypothalamus results in .
A) overeating; loss of hunger
B) loss of hunger; overeating
C) an elevated set point; a lowered set point
D) increased thirst; loss of thirst
20. I am a protein produced by fat cells and monitored by the hypothalamus. When in abundance, I cause the brain to increase metabolism. What am I?
B) ghrelin
C) orexin
D) leptin
21. Lucille has been sticking to a strict diet but can't seem to lose weight. What is the most likely explanation for her difficulty?
A) Her body has a very low set point.
B) Her pre-diet weight was near her body's set point.
C) Her weight problem is actually caused by an underlying eating disorder.
D) Lucille is an “external.”
22. Randy, who has been under a lot of stress lately, has intense cravings for sugary junk foods, which tend to make him feel more relaxed. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for his craving?
A) Randy feels that he deserves to pamper himself with sweets because of the stress he is under.
B) The extra sugar gives Randy the energy he needs to cope with the demands of daily life.
C) Carbohydrates boost levels of serotonin, which has a calming effect.
D) The extra sugar tends to lower blood insulin level, which promotes relaxation.
23. Ali's parents have tried hard to minimize their son's exposure to sweet, fattening foods. If Ali has the occasion to taste sweet foods in the future, which of the following is likely:
A) He will have a strong aversion to such foods.
B) He will have a neutral reaction to sweet foods.
C) He will display a preference for sweet tastes.
D) It is impossible to predict Ali's reaction.
24. The text suggests that a neophobia for unfamiliar tastes:
A) is more common in children than in adults.
B) protected our ancestors from potentially toxic substances.
C) may be an early warning sign of an eating disorder.
D) only grows stronger with repeated exposure to those tastes.
25. Bulimia nervosa involves:
A) binging.
B) purging.
C) dramatic weight loss.
D) a. and b.
26. Which of the following is not typical of both anorexia and bulimia?
A) far more frequent occurrence in women than in men
B) preoccupation with food and fear of being overweight
C) weight significantly and noticeably outside normal ranges
D) low self-esteem and feelings of depression
27. Of the following individuals, who might be most prone to developing an eating disorder?
A) Jason, an adolescent boy who is somewhat overweight and is unpopular with his peers
B) Jennifer, a teenage girl who has a poor self-image and a fear of not being able to live up to her parents' high standards
C) Susan, a 35-year-old woman who is a “workaholic” and devotes most of her energies to her high-pressured career
D) Bill, a 40-year-old man who has had problems with alcoholism and is seriously depressed after losing his job of 20 years
28. Kathy has been undergoing treatment for bulimia. There is an above-average probability that one or more members of Kathy's family have a problem with:
A) high achievement.
B) overprotection.
C) alcoholism.
D) all of the above.
29. Women in rate their body ideals closest to their actual shape.
A) Western cultures
B) countries such as Africa, where thinness can signal poverty,
C) countries such as India, where thinness is not idealized,
D) Australia, New Zealand, and England
30. Which of the following is true concerning eating disorders?
A) Genetic factors may influence susceptibility.
B) Cultural pressures for thinness strongly influence teenage girls.
C) Family background is a significant factor.
D) All of the above are true.
31. Although the cause of eating disorders is still unknown, proposed explanations focus on all of the following except:
A) metabolic factors.
B) genetic factors.
C) family background factors.
D) cultural factors.
32. Kinsey's studies of sexual behavior showed that:
A) males enjoy sex more than females.
B) females enjoy sex more than males.
C) premarital sex is less common than is popularly believed.
D) sexual behavior is enormously varied.
33. The correct order of the stages of Masters and Johnson's sexual response cycle is:
A) plateau; excitement; orgasm; resolution.
B) excitement; plateau; orgasm; resolution.
C) excitement; orgasm; resolution; refractory.
D) plateau; excitement; orgasm; refractory.
34. According to Masters and Johnson, the sexual response of males is most likely to differ from that of females during:
A) the excitement phase.
B) the plateau phase.
C) orgasm.
D) the resolution phase.
35. Which of the following has been found to be most effective in treating sexual disorders?
A) psychoanalysis.
B) cognitive therapy.
C) drug therapy.
D) behavior therapy.
36. Castration of male rats results in:
A) reduced testosterone and sexual interest.
B) reduced testosterone, but no change in sexual interest.
C) reduced estrogen and sexual interest.
D) reduced estrogen, but no change in sexual interest.
37. Hunger and sexual motivation are alike in that both are influenced by:
A) internal physiological factors.
B) external and imagined stimuli.
C) cultural expectations.
D) all of the above.
38. While viewing erotica, men and women differ in the activity levels of which brain area?
A) anterior cingulated cortex
B) amygdala
C) occipital lobe
D) temporal lobe
39. Of the following parts of the world, teen intercourse rates are highest in:
A) Western Europe.
B) Canada.
C) the United States.
D) Asia.
40. Which of the following was not identified as a contributing factor in the high rate of unprotected sex among adolescents?
A) alcohol use
B) thrill-seeking
C) mass media sexual norms
D) ignorance
41. Which of the following teens is most likely to delay the initiation of sex?
A) Jack, who has below-average intelligence
B) Jason, who is not religiously active
C) Ron, who regularly volunteers his time in community service
D) it is impossible to predict
42. Sexual orientation refers to:
A) a person's tendency to display behaviors typical of males or females.
B) a person's sense of identity as a male or female.
C) a person's enduring sexual attraction toward members of a particular gender.
D) all of the above.
43. Which of the following is not true regarding sexual orientation?
A) Sexual orientation is neither willfully chosen nor willfully changed.
B) Most people accept their orientation.
C) Men's sexual orientation is potentially more fluid and changeable than women's.
D) Women, regardless of sexual orientation, respond to both female and male erotic stimuli.
44. Summarizing his presentation on the origins of homosexuality, Dennis explains that the “fraternal birth-order effect” refers to the fact that:
A) men who have younger brothers are somewhat more likely to be gay.
B) men who have older brothers are somewhat more likely to be gay.
C) women with older sisters are somewhat more likely to be gay.
D) women with younger sisters are somewhat more likely to be gay.
45. Which of the following statements concerning homosexuality is true?
A) Homosexuals have abnormal hormone levels.
B) As children, most homosexuals were molested by an adult homosexual.
C) Homosexuals had a domineering opposite-sex parent.
D) New research indicates that sexual orientation may be at least partly physiological.
46. Some scientific evidence makes a preliminary link between homosexuality and:
A) late sexual maturation.
B) the age of an individual's first erotic experience.
C) atypical prenatal hormones.
D) early problems in relationships with parents.
47. Exposure of a fetus to the hormones typical of females between and months after conception may predispose the developing human to become attracted to males.
A) 1; 3
B) 2; 5
C) 4; 7
D) 6; 9
48. It has been said that the body's major sex organ is the brain. With regard to sex education:
A) transmission of value-free information about the wide range of sexual behaviors should be the primary focus of the educator.
B) transmission of technical knowledge about the biological act should be the classroom focus, free from the personal values and attitudes of researchers, teachers, and students.
C) the home, not the school, should be the focus of all instruction about reproductive behavior.
D) people's attitudes, values, and morals cannot be separated from the biological aspects of sexuality.
49. Summarizing her report on the need to belong, Rolanda states that:
A) “Cooperation amongst our ancestors was uncommon.”
B) “Social bonding is not in our nature; it is a learned human trait.”
C) “Because bonding with others increased our ancestors' success at reproduction and survival, it became part of our biological nature.”
D) both a. and b. are true.
50. When asked what makes life meaningful, most people first mention:
A) good health.
B) challenging work.
C) satisfying relationships.
D) serving others.
51. One research study found that having an e-mail go unanswered, and other forms of ostracism, elicit increased activity in the brain's:
A) amygdala.
B) frontal lobe.
C) cerebellum.
D) anterior cingulated cortex.
52. Which of the following individuals would be characterized as experiencing “flow”?
A) Sheila, who, despite viewing her work as merely a job, performs her work conscientiously
B) Larry, who sees his work as an artist as a calling
C) Darren, who views his present job as merely a stepping stone in his career
D) Montal, who often becomes so immersed in his writing that he loses all sense of self and time
53. Dr. Iverson conducts research focusing on how management styles influence worker motivation. Dr. Iverson would most accurately be described as a(n):
A) motivation psychologist.
B) personnel psychologist.
C) organizational psychologist.
D) human factors psychologist.
54. Which of the following was not identified as a contributing factor in the interviewer illusion?
A) The fact that interviews reveal applicants' intentions but not necessarily their habitual behaviors.
B) The tendency of interviewers to think that interview behavior only reflects applicants' enduring traits.
C) The tendency of interviewers to more often follow the successful careers of applicants they hired rather than those who were not hired.
D) The tendency of most interviewers to rely on unstructured rather than structured interviews.
55. Which of the following is not an aspect of Murray's definition of achievement motivation?
A) the desire to master skills
B) the desire for control
C) the desire to gain approval
D) the desire to attain a high standard
56. Because Alethea is very friendly and likable, her supervisor gives her a positive rating on her overall job performance. By generalizing from these specific traits to a biased overall evaluation, Alethea's supervisor has committed a:
A) leniency error.
B) severity error.
C) halo error.
D) recency error.
57. In order to predict future excellence in a young scholar, athlete, or artist, one would best examine the individual's:
A) preparation and daily discipline.
B) natural talent.
C) peer group.
D) home environment.
58. To increase employee productivity, industrial-organizational psychologists advise managers to:
A) adopt a directive leadership style.
B) adopt a democratic leadership style.
C) instill competitiveness in each employee.
D) deal with employees according to their individual motives.
59. For as long as she has been the plant manager, Juanita has welcomed input from employees and has delegated authority. Bill, manages his department, with a more authoritarian, iron-fisted approach. Juanita's style is one of leadership, whereas Bill's is one of leadership.
A) task; social
B) social; task
C) directive; democratic
D) democratic; participative
60. Rosa has been described as a “leader with a lot of charisma.” An organizational psychologist would say that this means she:
A) has a clear vision of her leadership goals.
B) is able to communicate her goals clearly and simply.
C) is able to inspire others.
D) possesses all of the above characteristics.
1. Emotions consist of which of the following components?
A) physiological reactions.
B) behavioral expressions.
C) conscious feelings.
D) all of the above.
2. You are on your way to school to take a big exam. Suddenly, on noticing that your pulse is racing and that you are sweating, you feel nervous. With which theory of emotion is this experience most consistent?
A) Cannon-Bard theory
B) James-Lange theory
C) relative deprivation theory
D) adaptation-level theory
3. Which theory of emotion emphasizes the simultaneous experience of body response and emotional feeling?
A) James-Lange theory
B) Cannon-Bard theory
C) two-factor theory
D) valence theory
4. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion states that:
A) emotions have two ingredients: physical arousal and a cognitive label.
B) the conscious experience of an emotion occurs at the same time as the body's physical reaction.
C) emotional experiences are based on an awareness of the body's responses to an emotion-arousing stimulus.
D) emotional ups and downs tend to balance in the long run.
5. Schachter's two-factor theory emphasizes that emotion involves both:
A) the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the nervous system.
B) verbal and nonverbal expression.
C) physical arousal and a cognitive label.
D) universal and culture-specific aspects.
6. After hitting a grand-slam home run, Mike noticed that his heart was pounding. Later that evening, after nearly having a collision while driving on the freeway, Mike again noticed that his heart was pounding. That he interpreted this reaction as fear, rather than as ecstasy, can best be explained by the:
A) James-Lange theory.
B) Cannon-Bard theory.
C) two-factor theory.
D) adaptation-level theory.
7. Which theory of emotion implies that every emotion is associated with a unique physiological reaction?
A) James-Lange theory
B) Cannon-Bard theory
C) two-factor theory
D) valence theory
8. Which of the following most accurately describes emotional arousal?
A) Emotions prepare the body to fight or flee.
B) Emotions are voluntary reactions to emotion-arousing stimuli.
C) Because all emotions have the same physiological basis, emotions are primarily psychological events.
D) Emotional arousal is always accompanied by cognition.
9. In an emergency situation, emotional arousal will result in:
A) increased rate of respiration.
B) increased blood sugar.
C) a slowing of digestion.
D) all of the above.
10. After Brenda scolded her brother for forgetting to pick her up from school, the physical arousal that had accompanied her anger diminished. Which division of her nervous system mediated her physical relaxation?
A) sympathetic division
B) parasympathetic division
C) skeletal division
D) peripheral nervous system
11. Which division of the nervous system is especially involved in bringing about emotional arousal?
A) somatic nervous system
B) peripheral nervous system
C) sympathetic nervous system
D) parasympathetic nervous system
12. The body's response to danger is triggered by the release of by the gland(s).
A) acetylcholine; adrenal
B) epinephrine and norepinephrine; adrenal
C) acetylcholine; pituitary
D) epinephrine and norepinephrine; pituitary
13. A relatively high level of arousal would be most likely to facilitate:
A) remembering the lines of a play.
B) shooting free throws in basketball.
C) sprinting 100 meters.
D) taking a final exam in introductory psychology.
14. Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between arousal and performance?
A) Generally, performance is optimal when arousal is low.
B) Generally, performance is optimal when arousal is high.
C) On easy tasks, performance is optimal when arousal is low.
D) On easy tasks, performance is optimal when arousal is high.
15. A student participating in an experiment concerned with physical responses that accompany emotions reports that her mouth is dry, her heart is racing, and she feels flushed. Can the emotion she is experiencing be determined?
A) Yes, it is anger.
B) Yes, it is fear.
C) Yes, it is ecstasy.
D) No, it cannot be determined from the information given.
16. Concerning emotions and their accompanying body responses, which of the following appears to be true?
A) Each emotion has its own body response and underlying brain circuit.
B) All emotions involve the same body response as a result of the same underlying brain circuit.
C) Many emotions involve similar body responses but have different underlying brain circuits.
D) All emotions have the same underlying brain circuits but different body responses.
17. Nine-month-old Nicole's left frontal lobe is more active than her right frontal lobe. We can expect that, all other things being equal, Nicole:
A) may suffer from mild depression for most of her life.
B) may have trouble “turning off” upsetting feelings later in her life.
C) may be more cheerful than those with more active right frontal lobes.
D) may have trouble expressing feelings later in her life.
18. Julio was extremely angry when he came in for a routine EEG of his brain activity. When he later told this to the doctor, she was no longer concerned about the:
A) increased electrical activity in Julio's right hemisphere.
B) increased electrical activity in Julio's left hemisphere.
C) decreased electrical activity in Julio's amygdala.
D) increased electrical activity in Julio's amygdala.
19. When the scientist electrically stimulated one area of a monkey's brain, the monkey became enraged. When another electrode was activated, the monkey cowered in fear. The electrodes were most likely implanted in the:
A) pituitary gland.
B) adrenal glands.
C) limbic system.
D) right hemisphere.
20. Electrical stimulation of which brain region can produce terror or rage in cats?
A) limbic system
B) hypothalamus
C) cortex
D) cerebellum
21. In laboratory experiments, fear and joy:
A) result in an increase in heart rate.
B) stimulate different facial muscles.
C) increase heart rate and stimulate different facial muscles.
D) result in a decrease in heart rate.
22. People who are exuberant and persistently cheerful show increased activity in the brain's , which is rich in receptors for the neurotransmitter .
A) right frontal lobe; dopamine
B) left frontal lobe; dopamine
C) amygdala; serotonin
D) thalamus; serotonin
23. Which of the following was not raised as a criticism of the James-Lange theory of emotion?
A) The body's responses are too similar to trigger the various emotions.
B) Emotional reactions occur before the body's responses can take place.
C) The cognitive activity of the cortex plays a role in the emotions we experience.
D) People with spinal cord injuries at the neck typically experience less emotion.
24. Two years ago Maria was in an automobile accident in which her spinal cord was severed, leaving her paralyzed from her neck down. Today, Maria finds that she experiences emotions less intensely than she did before her accident. This tends to support which theory of emotion?
A) James-Lange theory
B) Cannon-Bard theory
C) adaptation-level theory
D) relative deprivation theory
25. In the Schachter-Singer experiment, which college men reported feeling an emotional change in the presence of the experimenter's highly emotional confederate?
A) those receiving epinephrine and expecting to feel physical arousal
B) those receiving a placebo and expecting to feel physical arousal
C) those receiving epinephrine but not expecting to feel physical arousal
D) those receiving a placebo and not expecting to feel physical arousal
26. Which of the following was not presented in the text as evidence that some emotional reactions involve no deliberate, rational thinking?
A) Some of the neural pathways involved in emotion are separate from those involved in thinking and memory.
B) Emotional reactions are sometimes quicker than our interpretations of a situation.
C) People can develop an emotional preference for visual stimuli to which they have been unknowingly exposed.
D) Arousal of the sympathetic nervous system will trigger an emotional reaction even when artificially induced by an injection of epinephrine.
27. Who will probably be angrier after getting a parking ticket?
A) Bob, who has just awakened from a nap
B) Veronica, who has just finished eating a big lunch
C) Dan, who has just completed a tennis match
D) Alicia, who has been reading a romantic novel
28. Several studies have shown that physical arousal can intensify just about any emotion. For example, when people who have been physically aroused by exercise are insulted, they often misattribute their arousal to the insult. This finding illustrates the importance of:
A) cognitive labels of arousal in the conscious experience of emotions.
B) a minimum level of arousal in triggering emotional experiences.
C) the simultaneous occurrence of physical arousal and cognitive labeling in emotional experience.
D) all of the above.
29. (Thinking Critically) The polygraph measures:
A) lying.
B) brain rhythms.
C) chemical changes in the body.
D) physiological indexes of arousal.
30. (Thinking Critically) Current estimates are that the polygraph is inaccurate approximately of the time.
A) three-fourths
B) one-half
C) one-third
D) one-fourth
31. (Thinking Critically) Many psychologists are opposed to the use of lie detectors because:
A) they represent an invasion of a person's privacy and could easily be used for unethical purposes.
B) there are often serious discrepancies among the various indicators such as perspiration and heart rate.
C) polygraphs cannot distinguish the various possible causes of arousal.
D) they are accurate only about 50 percent of the time.
32. As part of her job interview, Jan is asked to take a lie-detector test. Jan politely refuses and points out that:
A) a guilty person can be found innocent by the polygraph.
B) an innocent person can be found guilty.
C) these tests err one-third of the time.
D) all of the above are true.
33. Evidence that changes in facial expression can directly affect people's feelings and body states has convinced Robert Zajonc that:
A) the heart is always subject to the mind.
B) emotional reactions involve deliberate rational thinking.
C) cognition is not necessary for emotion.
D) the interpretation of facial expressions is a learned skill.
34. Law enforcement officials sometimes use a lie detector to assess a suspect's responses to details of the crime believed to be known only to the perpetrator. This is known as the:
A) inductive approach.
B) deductive approach.
C) guilty knowledge test.
D) screening examination.
35. Research on nonverbal communication has revealed that:
A) it is easy to hide your emotions by controlling your facial expressions.
B) facial expressions tend to be the same the world over, while gestures vary from culture to culture.
C) most authentic expressions last between 7 and 10 seconds.
D) most gestures have universal meanings; facial expressions vary from culture to culture.
36. Which of the following is true regarding gestures and facial expressions?
A) Gestures are universal; facial expressions, culture-specific.
B) Facial expressions are universal; gestures, culture-specific.
C) Both gestures and facial expressions are universal.
D) Both gestures and facial expressions are culture-specific.
37. I am an emotionally literate person who is very accurate at reading others' nonverbal behavior, detecting lies, and describing my feelings. Who am I?
A) an introvert
B) an extrovert
C) a woman
D) a man
38. Children in New York, Nigeria, and New Zealand smile when they are happy and frown when they are sad. This suggests that:
A) the Cannon-Bard theory is correct.
B) some emotional expressions are learned at a very early age.
C) the two-factor theory is correct.
D) facial expressions of emotion are universal and biologically determined.
39. With regard to emotions, Darwin believed that:
A) the expression of emotions helped our ancestors to survive.
B) all humans express basic emotions using similar facial expressions.
C) human facial expressions of emotion retain elements of animals' emotional displays.
D) all of the above are true.
40. Who is the least likely to display negative emotions openly?
A) Paul, a game warden in Australia
B) Niles, a stockbroker in Belgium
C) Deborah, a physicist in Toronto
D) Yoko, a dentist in Japan
41. In cultures that emphasize social interdependence:
A) emotional displays are typically intense.
B) emotional displays are typically prolonged.
C) negative emotions are rarely displayed.
D) all of the above are true.
42. The candidate stepped before the hostile audience, panic written all over his face. It is likely that the candidate's facial expression caused him to experience:
A) a lessening of his fear.
B) an intensification of his fear.
C) a surge of digestive enzymes in his body.
D) increased body temperature.
43. Izard believes that there are basic emotions.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10
44. Margaret is a finalist in the U.S. Ice Skating Championship. She is very excited about the competition and is feeling energized. More than likely, the two dimensions of her current emotion would be a and .
A) positive valence; low arousal
B) negative valence; low arousal
C) positive valence; high arousal
D) negative valence; high arousal
45. Most human fears are:
A) universal.
B) biologically determined.
C) present at birth.
D) learned.
46. For which of the following fears do humans appear to be biologically prepared?
A) fear of electricity
B) fear of cliffs
C) fear of flowers
D) fear of flying
47. In studying what makes people angry, James Averill found that most people become angry:
A) once a day.
B) once a week.
C) several times a week.
D) several times a month.
48. Expressing anger can be adaptive when you:
A) retaliate immediately.
B) have mentally rehearsed all the reasons for your anger.
C) count to 10, then blow off steam.
D) first wait until the anger subsides, then deal with the situation in a civil manner.
49. Jane was so mad at her brother that she exploded at him when he entered her room. That she felt less angry afterward is best explained by the principle of:
A) adaptation level.
B) physiological arousal.
C) relative deprivation.
D) catharsis.
50. Concerning the catharsis hypothesis, which of the following is true?
A) Expressing anger can be temporarily calming if it does not leave one feeling guilty or anxious.
B) The arousal that accompanies unexpressed anger never dissipates.
C) Expressing one's anger always calms one down.
D) Psychologists agree that under no circumstances is catharsis beneficial.
51. Catharsis will be most effective in reducing anger toward another person if:
A) you wait until you are no longer angry before confronting the person.
B) the target of your anger is someone you feel has power over you.
C) your anger is directed specifically toward the person who angered you.
D) the other person is able to retaliate by also expressing anger.
52. As elderly Mr. Hooper crosses the busy intersection, he stumbles and drops the packages he is carrying. Which passerby is most likely to help Mr. Hooper?
A) Drew, who has been laid off from work for three months
B) Leon, who is on his way to work
C) Bonnie, who graduated from college the day before
D) Nancy, whose father recently passed away
53. Research indicates that a person is most likely to be helpful to others if he or she:
A) is feeling guilty about something.
B) is happy.
C) recently received help from another person.
D) recently offered help to another person.
54. A graph depicting the course of positive emotions over the hours of the day since waking would:
A) start low and rise steadily until bedtime.
B) start high and decrease steadily until bedtime.
C) remain at a stable, moderate level throughout the day.
D) rise over the early hours and dissipate during the day's last several hours.
55. Research suggests that people generally experience the greatest well-being when they strive for:
A) wealth.
B) modest income increases from year to year.
C) slightly higher status than their friends, neighbors, and coworkers.
D) intimacy and personal growth.
56. When Professor Simon acquired a spacious new office, he was overjoyed. Six months later, however, he was taking the office for granted. His behavior illustrates the:
A) relative deprivation principle.
B) adaptation-level phenomenon.
C) valence theory.
D) optimum arousal principle.
57. When students studied others who were worse off than themselves, they felt greater satisfaction with their own lives. This is an example of the principle of:
A) relative deprivation.
B) adaptation level.
C) behavioral contrast.
D) opponent processes.
58. Cindy was happy with her promotion until she found out that Janice, who has the same amount of experience, receives a higher salary. Cindy's feelings are best explained according to the:
A) adaptation-level phenomenon.
B) valence theory.
C) catharsis hypothesis.
D) principle of relative deprivation.
59. Which of the following is true regarding happiness?
A) People with more education tend to be happier.
B) Beautiful people tend to be happier than plain people.
C) Women tend to be happier than men.
D) People who are socially outgoing or who exercise regularly tend to be happier.
60. Which of these factors have researchers not found to correlate with happiness?
A) a satisfying marriage or close friendship
B) high self-esteem
C) religious faith
D) education